Functional testing is mostly-Validation techniques
The _________ Is the activity where general testing objectives are transformed
into tangible test conditions and test designs Test analysis and design
: Integration testing where no incremental testing takes place prior to all the
system’s components being combined to form the system. -Big bang testing
Who should have technical and Business background.- Reviewer
Test basis documentation is analyzed in which phase of testing - Test Analysis
Which one is not the task of test leader? Review and contribute to test plans
In ________ testing test cases i.e input to the software are created based on
the specifications languages Syntax Testing
Which tool store information about versions and builds of software and testware-Configuration management tool
In formal review, Rework: fixing defects found typically done by _________
-Author-
The _________ may facilitate the testing of components or part of a system by
simulation the environment in which the test object will run
-Test harness
Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use
of CAST? -Test execution
Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity
descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?
v - Test control
w - Test monitoring
x - Test estimation
y - Incident management
z - Configuration control
1 - Calculation of required test resources
2 - Maintenance of record of test results
3 - Re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 - Report on deviation from test plan
5 - Tracking of anomalous test results
C. v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
Which of the following tools is most likely to contain a comparator? Test Execution tool.
Which tool will be used to test the flag memory leaks and unassigned pointersDynamic analysis tool
Match the following:
1. Test estimation
2. Test control
3. Test monitoring
a. Measures of tracking process
b. Effort required to perform activities
c. Reallocation of resources
A. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
: Match the following.
1. Configuration identification
2. Configuration control
3. Status reporting
4. Configuration auditing
a. Maintains of CI’s in a library
b. Checks on the contents of the library
c. Function recording and tracking problems.
d. Requires the all CI’s and their versions in the system are known
B. 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b.
One of the following is not a part of white box testing as per BS7925-II
standards. Syntax testing
What type of testing will you perform on internet banking solution? Non-functional testing.’
A field failure occurs when multiple users access a system. Which of the
following is true?
This indicates an important non-functional requirement was not specified and tested.
What type of testing is done to supplement the rigorous testing? Error Guessing
Maintenance testing is:Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of existing software
Why is incremental integration preferred over "big bang" integration?
A. Because incremental integration has better early defects screening and isolation ability
The inputs for developing a test plan are taken from
Project plan
A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is
called:
A configuration management tool
Success Factors for a review include:
i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective
ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively
iii. Management supports a good review process.
iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement.
A. ii,iii,iv are correct and i is incorrect
The Provision and Management of a controlled library containing all the
configurations items is called as
A. Configuration Control
Test Conditions are derived from:
A. Specifications
From a Testing perspective, what are the MAIN purposes of Configuration
Management?:
Identifying the version of software under test.
ii) Controlling the version of testware items.
Tracking changes to testware items.
What is the MAIN objective when reviewing a software deliverable?To identify defects in any software work product.
When should configuration management procedures be implemented?
A. During test planning
Q. 138: The person who leads the review of the document(s), planning the review,running the meeting and follow-up after the meeting
A. Reviewer
B. Author
C. Moderator
D. Auditor
The Provision and Management of a controlled library containing all the configurations items is called as
A. Configuration Control
Q. 304: Which tool will be used to test the flag memory leaks and unassigned pointers
A. Dynamic analysis tool
Match the following.
1. Configuration identification
2. Configuration control
3. Status reporting
4. Configuration auditing
a. Maintains of CI’s in a library
b. Checks on the contents of the library
c. Function recording and tracking problems.
d. Requires the all CI’s and their versions in the system are known
A. 1-d, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a.
B. 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b.
C. 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c.
D. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d.
For testing, which of the options below best represents the main concerns of Configuration Management?
i. All items of testware are identified and version controlled;
ii. All items of testware are used in the final acceptance test;
iii. All items of testware are stored in a common repository;
iv. All items of testware are tracked for change;
v. All items of testware are assigned to a responsible owner;
vi. All items of testware are related to each other and to development items.
A. i, iv, vi.9(ans)
B. ii, iii, v.
C. i, iii, iv.
D. iv, v, vi.
Important questions::::;
1>Which of the following statements is MOST OFTEN true?
A. Source-code inspections are often used in component testing.
B. Component testing searches for defects in programs that are separately testable. (ans)
C. Component testing is an important part of user acceptance testing.
D. Component testing aims to expose problems in the interactions between software and hardware components.
2>Which of the following is an objective of a pilot project for the introduction of a testing tool?
A. Evaluate testers’ competence to use the tool.
B. Complete the testing of a key project.
C. Assess whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost.(ans)
D. Discover what the requirements for the tool are.
3>Considering the following pseudo-code, calculate the MINIMUM number of test cases for statement coverage, and the MINIMUM number of test cases for decision coverage respectively.
READ A
READ B
READ C
IF C>A THEN
IF C>B THEN
PRINT "C must be smaller than at least one number"
ELSE
PRINT "Proceed to next stage"
ENDIF
ELSE
PRINT "B can be smaller than C"
ENDIF
A. 3, 3.(ans)
B. 2, 3.
C. 2, 4.
D. 3, 2.
4>Which of the following is determined by the level of product risk identified?
A. Extent of testing. (ans)
B. Scope for the use of test automation.
C. Size of the test team.
D. Requirement for regression testing
5>When should testing be stopped?
A. When all the planned tests have been run
B. When time has run out
C. When all faults have been fixed correctly
D. It depends on the risks for the system being tested (ans)
6>Which of following statements is true? Select ALL correct options Regression testing should be performed:
i Once a month
ii When a defect has been fixed
iii When the test environment has changed
iv When the software has changed
A. ii and iv.
B. ii, iii and iv.(ans)
C. i, ii and iii.
D. i and iii.
7>The following statements are used to describe the basis for creating test cases using either black or white box techniques:
i Information about how the software is constructed.
ii Models of the system, software or components.
iii Analysis of the test basis documentation.
iv Analysis of the internal structure of the components.
Which combination of the statements describes the basis for black box techniques?
A. ii and iii. (ans)
B. ii and iv.
C. i and iv.
D. i and iii.
8>Which of the following requirements would be tested by a functional system test?
A. The system must be able to perform its functions for an average of 23 hours 50 mins per day.
B. The system must perform adequately for up to 30 users.
C. The system must allow a user to amend the address of a customer.(ans)
D. The system must allow 12,000 new customers per year.
9>Why are static testing and dynamic testing described as complementary?
A. Because they share the aim of identifying defects and find the same types of defect.
B. Because they have different aims and differ in the types of defect they find.
C. Because they have different aims but find the same types of defect.
D. Because they share the aim of identifying defects but differ in the types of defect they find.(ans)
10>Which of the following are valid objectives for incident reports?
i. Provide developers and other parties with feedback about the problem to enable identification, isolation and correction as necessary.
ii. Provide ideas for test process improvement.
iii. Provide a vehicle for assessing tester competence.
iv. Provide testers with a means of tracking the quality of the system under test.
A. i, ii, iii.
B. i, ii, iv.(ans)
C. i, iii, iv.
D. ii, iii, iv.
11> What is the objective of debugging?
i To localise a defect.
ii To fix a defect.
iii To show value.
iv To increase the range of testing.
A. i, iii.
B. ii, iii, iv.
C. ii, iv.
D. i, ii.(ans)
12>Consider the following techniques. Which are static and which are dynamic techniques?
i. Equivalence Partitioning.
ii. Use Case Testing.
iii.Data Flow Analysis.
iv.Exploratory Testing.
v. Decision Testing.
vi Inspections.
A. i-iv are static, v-vi are dynamic.
B. iii and vi are static, i, ii, iv and v are dynamic.(ans)
C. ii, iii and vi are static, i, iv and v are dynamic.
D. vi is static, i-v are dynamic.
13> Given the following code, which statement is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage?
Read p
Read q
IF p+q > 100 THEN
Print "Large"
ENDIF
IF p > 50 THEN
Print "p Large"
ENDIF
A. 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
B. 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage (ans)
C. 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
D. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
14>Which of the following is a benefit of independent testing?
A. Code cannot be released into production until independent testing is complete.
B. Testing is isolated from development.
C. Developers do not have to take as much responsibility for quality.
D. Independent testers see other and different defects, and are unbiased.(ans)
15>: Which activity in the fundamental test process includes evaluation of the testability of the requirements and system?
A. Test analysis and design.(ans)
B. Test planning and control.
C. Test closure.
D. Test implementation and execution.
Q. 16: In which of the following orders would the phases of a formal review usually occur?
A. Planning, preparation, kick off, meeting, rework, follow up.
B. Kick off, planning, preparation, meeting, rework, follow up.
C. Preparation, planning, kick off, meeting, rework, follow up.
D. Planning, kick off, preparation, meeting, rework, follow up.(ans)
Q. 17: For testing, which of the options below best represents the main concerns of Configuration Management?
i. All items of testware are identified and version controlled;
ii. All items of testware are used in the final acceptance test;
iii. All items of testware are stored in a common repository;
iv. All items of testware are tracked for change;
v. All items of testware are assigned to a responsible owner;
vi. All items of testware are related to each other and to development items.
A. i, iv, vi. (ans)
B. ii, iii, v.
C. i, iii, iv.
D. iv, v, vi.
Q. 18: Which of the following defines the scope of maintenance testing?
A. The coverage of the current regression pack.
B. The size and risk of any change(s) to the system.(ans)
C. The time since the last change was made to the system.
D. Defects found at the last regression test run.
Q. 19: What is typically the MOST important reason to use risk to drive testing efforts?
A. Because testing everything is not feasible. (ans)
B. Because risk-based testing is the most efficient approach to finding bugs.
C. Because risk-based testing is the most effective way to show value.
D. Because software is inherently risky.
Q. 20: Which of the following are valid objectives for testing?
i.To find defects.
ii.To gain confidence in the level of quality.
iii.To identify the cause of defects.
iv.To prevent defects.
A. i,ii, and iii.
B. ii, iii and iv.
C. i, ii and iv. (ans)
D. i,iii and iv.
Q.21:Which of the following will NOT be detected by static analysis?
A. Parameter type mismatches.
B. Errors in requirements. (ans)
C. Undeclared variables.
D. Uncalled functions.
Q. 22: Which of the following would be a valid measure of test progress?
A. Number of undetected defects.
B. Total number of defects in the product.
C. Number of test cases not yet executed. (ans)
D. Effort required to fix all defects.
Q. 23: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free.
The next £1500 is taxed at 10%.
The next £28000 after that is taxed at 22%.
Any further amount is taxed at 40%.
To the nearest whole pound, which of these groups of numbers fall into three DIFFERENT equivalence classes?
A. £4000; £5000; £5500.
B. £32001; £34000; £36500.
C. £28000; £28001; £32001.
D. £4000; £4200; £5600. (ans)
Q.24: Which of the following test activities can be automated?
i Reviews and inspections.
ii Metrics gathering.
iii Test planning.
iv Test execution.
v Data generation.
A. i, iii, iv.
B. i, ii, iii.
C. ii, iv, v. (ans)
D. ii, iii, v.
Q. 25: In a REACTIVE approach to testing when would you expect the bulk of the test design work to be begun?
A. After the software or system has been produced. (ans)
B. During development.
C. As early as possible.
D. During requirements analysis.
Q. 26: Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE?
A. Expected outcomes are defined by the software's behaviour (ans)
B. Expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
C. Expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
D. Expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times
Q. 27: Functional system testing is:
A. Testing that the system functions with other systems
B. Testing that the components that comprise the system function together
C. Testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole (ans)
D. Testing the system performs functions within specified response times
Q. 28: Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?
A. Operating systems
B. Test documentation
C. Live data (ans)
D. User requirement documents
Q. 29: What is NOT included in typical costs for an inspection process?
A. Setting up forms and databases
B. Analysing metrics and improving processes
C. Writing the documents to be inspected (ans)
D. Time spent on the document outside the meeting
Q. 30: Which of the following statements about component testing is FALSE?
A. Black box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique (ans)
B. White box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
C. Cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
D. Black box test measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
Q.31: Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:
A. To find faults in the software
B. To prove that the software has no faults (ans)
C. To give confidence in the software
D. To find performance problems
Q. 32: Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?
A. Component testing
B. Non-functional system testing
C. User acceptance testing
D. Maintenance testing (ans)
Q. 33: What type of review requires formal entry and exit criteria, including metrics:
A. Walkthrough
B. Inspection (ans)
C. Management review
D. Post project review
Q. 34: Maintenance means
A. Updating tests when the software has changed
B. Testing a released system that has been changed (ans)
C. Testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need
D. Testing to maintain business advantage
Q. 35: Incidents would not be raised against:
A. Requirements
B. Documentation
C. Test cases
D. Improvements suggested by users (ans)
Q. 36: All of the following might be done during unit testing except
A. Desk check
B. Manual support testing (ans)
C. Walkthrough
D. Compiler based testing
Q. 37: Which of the following is a requirement of an effective software environment?
I. Ease of use
II. Capacity for incremental implementation
III. Capability of evolving with the needs of a project
IV. Inclusion of advanced tools
A.I, II &III (ans)
B.I, II &IV
C.II, III&IV
D.I, III&IV
Q. 38: When testing a grade calculation system, a tester determines that all scores from 90 to 100 will yield a grade of A, but scores below 90 will not. This analysis is known as:
A. Equivalence partitioning (ans)
B. Boundary value analysis
C. Decision table
D. Hybrid analysis
Q. 39: The bug tracking system will need to capture these phases for each bug.
I. Phase injected
II. Phase detected
III. Phase fixed
IV. Phase removed
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV (ans)
C. II, III and IV
D. I, III and IV
Q. 40: Which of the following software change management activities is most vital to assessing the impact of proposed software modifications?
A. Baseline identification
B. Configuration auditing
C. Change control (ans)
D. Version control
Q.41:A type of integration testing in which software elements, hardware elements,or both are combined all at once into a component or an overall system, rather than in stages.
A. System Testing
B. Big-Bang Testing (ans)
C. Integration Testing
D. Unit Testing
Q. 42: You are the test manager and you are about the start the system testing. The developer team says that due to change in requirements they will be able to deliver the system to you for testing 5 working days after the due date. You can not change the resources( work hours, test tools, etc.) What steps you will take to be able to finish the testing in time.
A. Tell to the development team to deliver the system in time so that testing activity will be finish in time.
B. Extend the testing plan, so that you can accommodate the slip going to occur
C. Rank the functionality as per risk and concentrate more on critical functionality testing (ans)
D. Add more resources so that the slippage should be avoided
Q. 43: There is one application, which runs on a single terminal. There is another application that works on multiple terminals. What are the test techniques you will use on the second application that you would not do on the first application?
A. Integrity, Response time
B. Concurrency test, Scalability (ans)
C. Update & Rollback, Response time
D. Concurrency test, Integrity
Q. 44: Which technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage? It can be applied to human input, input via interfaces to a system, or interface parameters in integration testing.
A. Error Guessing
B. Boundary Value Analysis
C. Decision Table testing
D. Equivalence partitioning (ans)
Q. 45: In practice, which Life Cycle model may have more, fewer or different levels of development and testing, depending on the project and the software product. For example, there may be component integration testing after component testing, and system integration testing after system testing.
A. Water Fall Model
B.V-Model (ans)
C. Spiral Model
D. RAD Model
Q. 46: Which of the following statements is true about white-box testing?
A. It includes functional testing
B. It includes loop testing
C. It is usually done after black-box testing
D. It is usually done during the integration testing phase
Q. 47: "The tracing of requirements for a test level through the layers of a test documentation" done by
A. Horizontal tracebility
B. Depth tracebility
C. Vertical tracebility
D. Horizontal & Vertical tracebilities
Q. 48: ‘Entry criteria’ should address questions such as
I. Are the necessary documentation, design and requirements information available that will allow testers to operate the system and judge correct behavior.
II. Is the test environment-lab, hardware, software and system administration support ready?
III. Those conditions and situations that must prevail in the testing process to allow testing to continue effectively and efficiently.
IV. Are the supporting utilities, accessories and prerequisites available in forms that testers can use
A. I, II and IV
B. I, II and III
C. I, II, III and IV
D. II, III and IV.
Q. 49: Big bang approach is related to
A. Regression testing
B. Inter system testing
C. Re-testing
D. Integration testing
Q. 50: Which of the following statements is true about a software verification and validation program?
I. It strives to ensure that quality is built into software.
II. It provides management with insights into the state of a software project.
III. It ensures that alpha, beta, and system tests are performed.
IV. It is executed in parallel with software development activities.
A. I, II&III
B.II, III&IV
C.I, II&IV
D.I, III&IV
Q.51:An expert based test estimation is also known as
A. Narrow band Delphi
B. Wide band Delphi
C. Bespoke Delphi
D. Robust Delphi
Q. 52: A test harness is a
A. A high level document describing the principles, approach and major objectives of the organization regarding testing
B. A distance set of test activities collected into a manageable phase of a project
C. A test environment comprised of stubs and drives needed to conduct a test
D. A set of several test cases for a component or system under test
Q. 53: ‘Be bugging’ is known as
A. Preventing the defects by inspection
B. Fixing the defects by debugging
C. Adding known defects by seeding
D. A process of fixing the defects by tester
Q. 54: A project manager has been transferred to a major software development project that is in the implementation phase. The highest priority for this project manager should be to
A. Establish a relationship with the customer
B. Learn the project objectives and the existing project plan
C. Modify the project’ s organizational structure to meet the manager’s management style
D. Ensure that the project proceeds at its current pace
Q. 55: "This life cycle model is basically driven by schedule and budget risks" This statement is best suited for
A. Water fall model
B. Spiral model
C. Incremental model
D. V-Model
Q. 56: Which of the following characteristics is primarily associated with software reusability?
A. The extent to which the software can be used in other applications
B. The extent to which the software can be used by many different users
C. The capability of the software to be moved to a different platform
D. The capability of one system to be coupled with another system
Q. 57: Which of the following functions is typically supported by a software quality information system?
I. Record keeping
II. System design
III. Evaluation scheduling
IV. Error reporting
A.I, II&III
B.II, III &IV
C.I, III &IV
D.I, II & IV
Q. 58: System test can begin when?
I. The test team competes a three day smoke test and reports on the results to the system test phase entry meeting
II. The development team provides software to the test team 3 business days prior to starting of the system testing
III. All components are under formal, automated configuration and release management control
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III
Q. 59: ‘Defect Density’ calculated in terms of
A. The number of defects identified in a component or system divided by the size of the component or the system
B. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by that test phase and any other means after wards
C. The number of defects identified in the component or system divided by the number of defects found by a test phase
D. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by the size of the system
Q. 60: Test charters are used in ________ testing
A. Exploratory testing
B. Usability testing
C. Component testing
D. Maintainability testing
Q.61:Item transmittal report is also known as
A. Incident report
B. Release note
C. Review report
D. Audit report
Q. 62: COTS is known as
A. Commercial off the shelf software
B. Compliance of the software
C. Change control of the software
D. Capable off the shelf software
Q. 63: Change request should be submitted through development or program management. A change request must be written and should include the following criteria.
I. Definition of the change
II. Documentation to be updated
III. Name of the tester or developer
IV. Dependencies of the change request.
A. I, III and IV
B. I, II and III
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II and IV
Q. 64: Change X requires a higher level of authority than Change Y in which of the following pairs? Change X Change Y
A. Code in development Code in production
B. Specifications during requirements analysis Specifications during systems test
C. Documents requested by the technical development group Documents requested by customers
D. A product distributed to several sites A product with a single user
Q. 65: Cause effect graphing is related to the standard
A. BS7799
B. BS 7925/2
C. ISO/IEC 926/1
D. ISO/IEC 2382/1
Q. 66: The primary goal of comparing a user manual with the actual behavior of the running program during system testing is to
A. Find bugs in the program
B. Check the technical accuracy of the document
C. Ensure the ease of use of the document
D. Ensure that the program is the latest version
Q. 67: During the testing of a module tester ‘X’ finds a bug and assigned it to developer. But developer rejects the same, saying that it’s not a bug. What ‘X’ should do?
A. Report the issue to the test manager and try to settle with the developer.
B. Retest the module and confirm the bug
C. Assign the same bug to another developer
D. Send to the detailed information of the bug encountered and check the reproducibility
Q. 68: One of the more daunting challenges of managing a test project is that so many dependencies converge at test execution. One missing configuration file or hard ware device can render all your test results meaning less. You can end up with an entire platoon of testers sitting around for days. Who is responsible for this incident?
A. Test managers faults only
B. Test lead faults only
C. Test manager and project manager faults
D. Testers faults only
Q. 69: You are a tester for testing a large system. The system data model is very large with many attributes and there are a lot of inter dependencies with in the fields. What steps would you use to test the system and also what are the efforts of the test you have taken on the test plan
A. Improve super vision, More reviews of artifacts or program means stage containment of the defects.
B. Extend the test plan so that you can test all the inter dependencies
C. Divide the large system in to small modules and test the functionality
D. Test the interdependencies first, after that check the system as a whole
Q. 70: Testing of software used to convert data from existing systems for use in replacement systems
A. Data driven testing
B. Migration testing
C. Configuration testing
D. Back to back testing
Q.71: A test manager wants to use the resources available for the automated testing of a web application. The best choice is
A. Test automater, web specialist, DBA, test lead
B. Tester, test automater, web specialist, DBA
C. Tester, test lead, test automater, DBA
D. Tester, web specialist, test lead, test automater
Q. 72: From the below given choices, which one is the ‘Confidence testing’
A. Sanity testing
B. System testing
C. Smoke testing
D. Regression testing
Q. 73: Consider the following statements
i. A incident may be closed without being fixed
ii. Incidents may not be raised against documentation
iii. The final stage of incident tracking is fixing
iv. The incident record does not include information on test environments
v. Incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs the test
A. ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false
B. i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false
C. i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false
D. i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false
E. i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false
Q. 74: Which test suite will check for an invalid transition using the diagram below?
A. S0-S1-S2-S3-S1-S4
B. S0-S1-S4-S1-S2-S3
C. S0-S1-S3-S1-S2-S1
D. S0-S1-S2-S3-S1-S2
Q. 75: Who OFTEN performs system testing and acceptance testing, respectively?
A. Senior programmers and professional testers
B. Technical system testers and potential customers
C. Independent test team and users of the system
D. Development team and customers of the system
Q. 76: Which test levels are USUALLY included in the common type of V-model?
A. Integration testing, system testing, acceptance testing, and regression testing
B. Component testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing
C. Incremental testing, exhaustive testing, exploratory testing, and data driven testing
D. Alpha testing, beta testing, black-box testing, and white-box testing
Q. 77: Which general testing principles are characterized by the descriptions below?
W) Early testing
X) Defect clustering
Y) Pesticide paradox
Z) Absence-of-errors fallacy
1) Testing should start at the beginning of the project
2) Conformance to requirements and fitness for use
3) Small Number of modules contain the most defects
4) Test cases must be regularly renewed and revised
A. W1, X2, Y3, and Z4
B. W1, X3, Y4, and Z2
C. W2, X3, Y1, and Z4
D. W1, X4, Y2, and Z3
Q. 78: What should be taken into account to determine when to stop testing?
I. Technical risk
II. Business risk
III Project constraints
IV Product documentation
A. I and II are true. III and N are false
B. III is true, I, II, and IV are false
C. I, II, and IV are true; III is false
D. I, II, and III are true, IV is false
Q. 79: Data defects can occur when accessing the programs data log files.
A. True
B. False
Q. 80: Configuration management tools support activities related to managing the environment, including configuration management, change control, library control, documentation control.
A. True
B. False
Q.81: Memory leak checker tools are used to create runtime performance profiles at the module, library and function level.
A. True
B. False
Q. 82: The test strategy that involves understanding the program logic is:
A. Equivalence partitioning
B. White box testing
C. Black box testing
D. Boundary strategy
Q. 83: What test document contains all the information about a specific test case, including requirements and the modules to be tested?
A. Test plan
B. Test case specification
C. Test design specification
D. Test procedure
E. Defect report
Q. 84: A testing process that is conducted to test new features after regression testing of previous features.
A. Operational testing
B. Progressive testing
C. Recovery testing
D. Regression testing
Q. 85: The test case log is used to keep track of the status of each test case.
A. True
B. False
Q. 86: A test case specification document is used to keep track of each test run.
A. True
B. False
Q. 87: The programs send bad data to devices, ignore error codes coming back, and try to use devices that are busy or aren't there. This is a:
A. Calculation error
B. Functional error
C. Hardware error
D. System error
E. User Interface error
Q. 88: Cause and effect diagrams can be used to view attempts to solving quality issues that have not worked in the past.
A. True
B. False
Q. 89: Business process-based testing is used in system testing and acceptance testing.
A. True
B. False
Q.90: The best time to influence the quality of a system design is in the _______.
A. Planning Phase
B. Analysis Phase
C. Design Phase
D. Testing Phase
Q.91:Which of the following is a fundamental principle of software defect prevention?
A. Software quality engineering must evaluate all errors.
B. A balance of white-box and black-box testing is necessary.
C. A single root cause taxonomy should be used by all projects.
D. Feedback to the individuals who introduced the defect is essential.
Q. 92: When software reliability measures are used to determine when to stop testing, the best types of test cases to use are those that
A. Push the system beyond its designed operation limits and are likely to make the system fail
B. Exercise unusual and obscure scenarios that may not have been considered in design
C. Exercise system functions in proportion to the frequency they will be used in the released product
D. Exercise the most complicated and the most error-prone portions of the system
Q. 93: A test plan is prepared for management by the project leader, which explains all project control variances relative to the testing effort. It also summarizes test case logs and coverage statistics for key programs.
A. True
B. False
Q. 94: Which of the following statements is true about white-box testing?
A. It includes functional testing.
B. It includes loop testing.
C. It is usually done after black-box testing.
D. It is usually done during the integration testing phase.
Q. 95: A set of behavioral and performance requirements which, in aggregate, determine the functional properties of a software system.
A. Functional requirement
B. Functional specifications
C. Functional test cases
Q.96: The test strategy that is informal and non structured is:
A. Equivalence partitioning
B. Validation strategy
C. White box testing
D. Ad hoc testing
Q. 97: Which of the following is not a job responsibility of a software tester?
A. Identifying test cases
B. Preparing test data
C. Executing tests
D. Writing the functional specifications
Q. 98: If a system is not functioning as documented and the data is not corrupted. What priority and measure are assigned?
A. Priority 1: Critical
B. Priority 2: High
C. Priority 3: Medium
D. Priority 4: Low
Q. 99: The key process area at CMM Level 4 - Managed focus on establishing a quantitative understanding of both the software process and the software work products being built.
A. True
B. False
Q. 100: Errors that are cosmetic in nature are usually assigned a ______ severity level.
A. Fatal (Severity)
B. Low (Severity)
C. Serious (Severity)
Q.101:Non-functional system testing is a testing process that test system requirements that do not relate to functionality.
A. True
B. False
Q. 102: Quality control and quality assurance are different names for the same activity.
A. True
B. False
Q. 103: Which type of document might be reviewed at a Review/Inspection session?
A. Employee performance review
B. Test Plan
C. Project Status Report
D. Defect Tracking Form
Q. 104:The following code segment contains a potential "divide by 0" error.
J=50
K=1
while (N>=-10) and (N<=10) loop
M [K] = J/N
K = K + 1
N = N - 1
end loop
Which of the following is the most effective way of detecting this error?
A. Boundary testing
B. Condition testing
C. Compilation of the source code
D. Source code inspection
Q. 105: Once the requirement document is approved, the Tester can begin creating a Requirements Matrix to track the requirements throughout the SDLC.
A. True
B. False
Q.106: The requirements document identifies all system components and requirements to be tested, as well as detailed approaches to be followed, so that the testing of components and requirements is effective.
A. True
B. False
Q. 107: Which of the following are major test documents? (choose the best answer)
1) Test plan
2) Test case
3) Test design
4) Test procedure
5) Defect report
A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 3, and 4
C. 1, 3, 4, and 5
D. all of the above
Q. 108: IEEE stands for:
A. Information Engineering Endeavoring to Excel]
B. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers
C. Institute of Education for E-commerce Entrepreneurs
D. Individual Excellence in Engineering Enterprises
Q. 109: Ad Hoc testing is a formal and structured testing method.
A. True
B. False
Q. 110: The use of test automation would provide the best return on investment for which of the following?
A. Unit testing
B. Usability testing
C. Regression testing
D. Acceptance testing
Q.111 The use of test automation would provide the best return on investment for which of the following?
A. Unit testing
B. Usability testing
C. Regression testing
D. Acceptance testing
Q. 112: The primary goal of comparing a user manual with the actual behavior of the running program during system testing is to
A. find bugs in the program
B. check the technical accuracy of the document
C. ensure the ease of use of the document
D. ensure that the program is the latest version
Q. 113: The following code segment contains a potential "divide by 0" error.
J=50
K=1
while (N>=-10) and (N<=10) loop
M [K] = J/N
K = K + 1
N = N - 1
end loop
Q.114:Which of the following is the most effective way of detecting this error?
A. Boundary testing
B. Condition testing
C. Compilation of the source code
D. Source code inspection
Q. 115: Which of the following is a fundamental principle of software defect prevention?
A. Software quality engineering must evaluate all errors.
B. A balance of white-box and black-box testing is necessary.
C. A single root cause taxonomy should be used by all projects.
D. Feedback to the individuals who introduced the defect is essential.
Q. 116: The best time to influence the quality of a system design is in the _______.
A. Planning Phase
B. Analysis Phase
C. Design Phase
D. Testing Phase
Q. 117: IEEE stands for:
A. Information Engineering Endeavoring to Excel
B. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers
C. Institute of Education for E-commerce Entrepreneurs
D. Individual Excellence in Engineering Enterprises
Q. 118: Which type of document might be reviewed at a Review/Inspection session?
A. Employee performance review
B. Test Plan
C. Project Status Report
D. Defect Tracking Form
Q. 119: Quality control and quality assurance are different names for the same activity.
A. True
B. False
Q. 120: Cause and effect diagrams can be used to view attempts to solving quality issues that have not worked in the past.
A. True
B. False
Q. 121: Which of the following is not a job responsibility of a software tester?
A. Identifying test cases
B. Preparing test data
C. Executing tests
D. Writing the functional specifications
Q.121:The test strategy that is informal and non structured is:
A. Equivalence partitioning
B. Validation strategy
C. White box testing
D. Ad hoc testing
Q.122: The test strategy that involves understanding the program logic is:
A. Equivalence partitioning
B. White box testing
C. Black box testing
D. Boundary strategy
Q.123: Data defects can occur when accessing the programs data log files.
A. True
B. False
Q.124: Once the requirement document is approved, the Tester can begin creating a Requirements Matrix to track the requirements throughout the SDLC.
A. True
B. False
Q.125: Ad Hoc testing is a formal and structured testing method.
A. True
B. False
Q.126: The programs send bad data to devices, ignore error codes coming back, and try to use devices that are busy or aren't there. This is a:
A. Calculation error
B. Functional error
C. Hardware error
D. System error
E. User Interface error
Q.127: Errors that are cosmetic in nature are usually assigned a ______ severity level.
A. Fatal (Severity)
B. Low (Severity)
C. Serious (Severity)
Q.128: If a system is not functioning as documented and the data is not corrupted. What priority and measure are assigned?
A. Priority 1: Critical
B. Priority 2: High
C. Priority 3: Medium
D. Priority 4: Low
Q.129: A testing process that is conducted to test new features after regression testing of previous features.
A. Operational testing
B. Progressive testing
C. Recovery testing
D. Regression testing
Q.130: Which of the following are major test documents? (choose the best answer)
1) Test plan
2) Test case
3) Test design
4) Test procedure
5) Defect report
A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 3, and 4
C. 1, 3, 4, and 5
D. All of the above
Q.131: The requirements document identifies all system components and requirements to be tested, as well as detailed approaches to be followed, so that the testing of components and requirements is effective.
A. True
B. False
Q. 132: The test case log is used to keep track of the status of each test case.
A. True
B. False
Q. 133: What test document contains all the information about a specific test case, including requirements and the modules to be tested?
A. Test plan
B. Test case specification
C. Test design specification
D. Test procedure
E. Defect report
Q. 134: A test case specification document is used to keep track of each test run.
A. True
B. False
Q. 135: A test plan is prepared for management by the project leader, which explains all project control variances relative to the testing effort. It also summarizes test case logs and coverage statistics for key programs.
A. True
B. False
Q. 136: Memory leak checker tools are used to create runtime performance profiles at the module, library and function level.
A. True
B. False
Q. 137: Configuration management tools support activities related to managing the environment, including configuration management, change control, library control, documentation control.
A. True
B. False
Q. 138: The key process area at CMM Level 4 - Managed focus on establishing a quantitative understanding of both the software process and the software work products being built.
A. True
B. False
Q. 139: Non-functional system testing is a testing process that test system requirements that do not relate to functionality.
A. True
B. False
Q. 140: A set of behavioral and performance requirements which, in aggregate, determine the functional properties of a software system.
A. Functional requirement
B. Functional specifications
C. Functional test cases
Q.141: A company recently purchased a commercial off-the-shelf application to automate their bill paying process. They now plan to run an acceptance test against the package prior to putting it into production.
Which of the following is their most likely reason for testing?
A. To build confidence in the application.
B. To detect bugs in the application.
C. To gather evidence for a lawsuit.
D. To train the users.
Q. 142: According to the ISTQB Glossary, the word 'bug' is synonymous with which of the following words?
A. Incident
B. Defect
C. Mistake
D. Error
Q. 143: According to the ISTQB Glossary, a risk relates to which of the following?
A. Negative feedback to the tester.
B. Negative consequences that will occur.
C. Negative consequences that could occur.
D. Negative consequences for the test object.
Q. 144: Ensuring that test design starts during the requirements definition phase is important to enable which of the following test objectives?
A. Preventing defects in the system.
B. Finding defects through dynamic testing.
C. Gaining confidence in the system.
D. Finishing the project on time.
Q. 145: A test team consistently finds between 90% and 95% of the defects present in the system under test. While the test manager understands that this is a good defect-detection percentage for her test team and industry, senior management and executives remain disappointed in the test group, saying that the test team misses too many bugs. Given that the users are generally happy with the system and that the failures which have occurred have generally been low impact, which of the following testing principles is most likely to help the test manager explain to these managers and executives why some defects are likely to be missed?
A. Exhaustive testing is impossible
B. Defect clustering
C. Pesticide paradox
D. Absence-of-errors fallacy
Q. 146: According to the ISTQB Glossary, regression testing is required for what purpose?
A. To verify the success of corrective actions.
B. To prevent a task from being incorrectly considered completed.
C. To ensure that defects have not been introduced by a modification.
D. To motivate better unit testing by the programmers.
Q. 147: Which of the following is most important to promote and maintain good relationships between testers and developers?
A. Understanding what managers value about testing.
B. Explaining test results in a neutral fashion.
C. Identifying potential customer work-arounds for bugs.
D. Promoting better quality software whenever possible.
Q. 148: Which of the statements below is the best assessment of how the test principles apply across the test life cycle?
A. Test principles only affect the preparation for testing.
B. Test principles only affect test execution activities.
C. Test principles affect the early test activities such as review.
D. Test principles affect activities throughout the test life cycle.
Q. 149: What are good practices for testing within the development life cycle?
A. Early test analysis and design.
B. Different test levels are defined with specific objectives.
C. Testers will start to get involved as soon as coding is done.
D. A and B above.
Q. 150: Which option best describes objectives for test levels with a life cycle model?
A. Objectives should be generic for any test level.
B. Objectives are the same for each test level.
C. The objectives of a test level don't need to be defined in advance.
D. Each level has objectives specific to that level.
Q.151: Which of the following is a test type?
A. Component testing
B. Functional testing
C. System testing
D. Acceptance testing
Q. 152: Which of the following is a non-functional quality characteristic?
A. Feasibility
B. Usability
C. Maintenance
D. Regression
Q. 153: Which of these is a functional test?
A. Measuring response time on an on-line booking system.
B. Checking the effect of high volumes of traffic in a call-center system.
C. Checking the on-line bookings screen information and the database contents against the information on the letter to the customers.
D. Checking how easy the system is to use.
Q. 154: Which of the following is a true statement regarding the process of fixing emergency changes?
A. There is no time to test the change before it goes live, so only the best developers should do this work and should not involve testers as they slow down the process.
B. Just run the retest of the defect actually fixed.
C. Always run a full regression test of the whole system in case other parts of the system have been adversely affected.
D. Retest the changed area and then use risk assessment to decide on a reasonable subset of the whole regression test to run in case other parts of the system have been adversely affected.
Q. 155: A regression test:
A. Is only run once.
B. Will always be automated.
C. Will check unchanged areas of the software to see if they have been affected.
D. Will check changed areas of the software to see if they have been affected.
Q. 156: Non-functional testing includes:
A. Testing to see where the system does not function correctly.
B. Testing the quality attributes of the system including reliability and usability.
C. Gaining user approval for the system.
D. Testing a system feature using only the software required for that function.
Q. 157: Which of the following artifacts can be examined by using review techniques?
A. Software code
B. Requirements specification
C. Test designs
D. All of the above
Q. 158: Which statement about the function of a static analysis tool is true?
A. Gives quality information about the code without executing it.
B. Checks expected results against actual results.
C. Can detect memory leaks.
D. Gives information about what code has and has not been exercised.
Q. 159: Which is not a type of review?
A. Walkthrough
B. Inspection
C. Informal review
D. Management approval
Q. 160: What statement about reviews is true?
A. Inspections are led by a trained moderator, whereas technical reviews are not necessarily.
B. Technical reviews are led by a trained leader, inspections are not.
C. In a walkthrough, the author does not attend.
D. Participants for a walkthrough always need to be thoroughly
Q.161: What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?
A. An inspection is led by the authors, whilst a walkthrough is led by a trained moderator.
B. An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.
C. Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
D. A walkthrough is led by the author, whilst an inspection is led by a trained moderator.
Q. 162: Which of the following characteristics and types of review processes belong together?
1. Led by the author
2. Undocumented
3. No management participation
4. Led by a trained moderator or leader
5. Uses entry and exit criteria
s. Inspection
t. Technical review
u. Informal review
v. Walkthrough
A. s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
B. s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
C. s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
D. s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2
Q. 163: What statement about static analysis is true?
A. With static analysis, defects can be found that are difficult to find with dynamic testing.
B. Compiling is not a form of static analysis.
C. When properly performed, static analysis makes functional testing redundant.
D. Static analysis finds all faults.
Q. 164: Which of the following statements about early test design are true and which are false?
1. Defects found during early test design are more expensive to fix.
2. Early test design can find defects.
3. Early test design can cause changes to the requirements.
4. Early test design takes more effort.
A. 1 and 3 are true. 2 and 4 are false.
B. 2 is true. 1, 3 and 4 are false.
C. 2 and 3 are true. 1 and 4 are false.
D. 2, 3 and 4 are true. 1 is false.
Q. 165: Static code analysis typically identifies all but one of the following problems. Which is it?
A. Unreachable code
B. Undeclared variables
C. Faults in the requirements
D. Too few comments
Q. 166: In which document described in IEEE 829 would you find instructions for the steps to be taken for a test including set-up, logging, environment and measurement?
A. Test plan
B. Test design specification
C. Test case specification
D. Test procedure specification
Q. 167: With a highly experienced tester with a good business background, which approach to defining test procedures would be effective and most efficient for a project under severe time pressure?
A. A high-level outline of the test conditions and general steps to take.
B. Every step in the test spelled out in detail.
C. A high-level outline of the test conditions with the steps to take discussed in detail with another experienced tester.
D. Detailed documentation of all test cases and careful records of each step taken in the testing.
Q. 168: Put the test cases that implement the following test conditions into the best order for the test execution schedule, for a test that is checking modifications of customers on a database.
1. Print modified customer record.
2. Change customer address: house number and street name.
3. Capture and print the on-screen error message.
4. Change customer address: postal code.
5. Confirm existing customer is on the database by opening that record.
6. Close the customer record and close the database.
7. Try to add a new customer with no details at all.
A. 5, 4, 2, 1, 3, 7, 6
B. 4, 2, 5,1, 6, 7, 3
C. 5, 4, 2, 1, 7, 3, 6
D. 5,1, 2, 3, 4, 7, 6
Q. 169: Why are both specification-based and structure-based testing techniques useful?
A. They find different types of defect.
B. Using more techniques is always better.
C. Both find the same types of defect.
D. Because specifications tend to be unstructured.
Q. 170: What is a key characteristic of structure-based testing techniques?
A. They are mainly used to assess the structure of a specification.
B. They are used both to measure coverage and to design tests to increase coverage.
C. They are based on the skills and experience of the tester.
D. They use a formal or informal model of the software or component.
Q.171: Which of the following would be an example of decision-table testing for a financial application applied at the system-test level?
A. A table containing rules for combinations of inputs to two fields on a screen.
B. A table containing rules for interfaces between components.
C. A table containing rules for mortgage applications.
D. A table containing rules for chess.
Q. 172: Which of the following could be a coverage measure for state transition testing?
V. All states have been reached.
W. The response time for each transaction is adequate.
X. Every transition has been exercised.
Y. All boundaries have been exercised.
Z. Specific sequences of transitions have been exercised.
A. X, Y and Z
B. V, X, Y and Z
C. W,X and Y
D. V, X and Z
Q. 173: Postal rates for 'light letters' are 25p up to 10g, 35p up to 50g plus an extra 10p for each additional 25g up to 100g. Which test inputs (in grams) would be selected using equivalence partitioning?
A. 8, 42, 82, 102
B. 4, 15, 65, 92, 159
C. 10, 50, 75, 100
D. 5, 20, 40, 60, 80
Q. 174: Which of the following could be used to assess the coverage achieved for specification based (black-box) test techniques?
V. Decision outcomes exercised
W. Partitions exercised
X. Boundaries exercised
Y. State transitions exercised
Z. Statements exercised
A. Y, W, Y, or Z
B. W, X or Y
C. V, X or Z
D. W, X, Y or Z
Q. 175: Which of the following would structure-based test design techniques be most likely to be applied to?
1. Boundaries between mortgage interest rate bands.
2. An invalid transition between two different arrears statuses.
3. The business process flow for mortgage approval.
4. Control flow of the program to calculate repayments.
A. 2, 3 and 4
B. 2 and 4
C. 3 and 4
D. 1,2 and 3
Q. 176: Use case testing is useful for which of the following?
P. Designing acceptance tests with users or customers.
Q. Making sure that the mainstream business processes are tested.
R. Finding defects in the interaction between components.
S. Identifying the maximum and minimum values for every input field.
T. Identifying the percentage of statements exercised by a sets of tests.
A. P, Q and R
B. Q, S and T
C. P,Q and S
D. R, S and T
Q. 177: Which of the following statements about the relationship between statement coverage and decision coverage is correct?
A. 100% decision coverage is achieved if statement coverage is greater than 90%.
B. 100% statement coverage is achieved if decision coverage is greater than 90%.
C. 100% decision coverage always means 100% statement coverage.
D. 100% statement coverage always means 100% decision coverage.
Q. 178: If you are flying with an economy ticket, there is a possibility that you may get upgraded to business class, especially if you hold a gold card in the airline's frequent flier program. If you don't hold a gold card, there is a possibility that you will get 'bumped' off the flight if it is full and you check in late. This is shown in following Figure. Note that each box (i.e. statement) has been numbered.
Three tests have been run:
Test 1: Gold card holder who gets upgraded to business class
Test 2: Non-gold card holder who stays in economy
Test 3: A person who is bumped from the flight
What is the statement coverage of these three tests?
A. 60%
B. 70%
C. 80%
D. 90%
(figure is there)
Q. 179: Why are error guessing and exploratory testing good to do?
A. They can find defects missed by specification-based and structure-based techniques.
B. They don't require any training to be as effective as formal techniques.
C. They can be used most effectively when there are good specifications.
D. They will ensure that all of the code or system is tested.
Q. 180: How do experience-based techniques differ from specification-based techniques?
A. They depend on the tester's understanding of the way the system is structured rather than on a documented record of what the system should do.
B. They depend on having older testers rather than younger testers.
C. They depend on a documented record of what the system should do rather than on an individual's personal view.
D. They depend on an individual's personal view rather than on a documented record of what the system should do.
Q.181: When choosing which technique to use in a given situation, which factors should be taken into account?
V. previous experience of types of defects found in this or similar systems
W. the existing knowledge of the testers
X. regulatory standards that apply
Y. the type of test execution tool that will be used
Z. the documentation available
A. V, W, Y and Z
B. U, V, W and Y
C. U, X and Y
D. V, W and Y
Q. 182: Given the state diagram in following Figure, which test case is the minimum series of valid transitions to cover every state?
(figure is there)
A. SS - S1 - S2 - S4 - S1 - S3 - ES
B. SS - S1 - S2 - S3 - S4 - S3 - S4 - ES
C. SS - S1 - S2 - S4 - S1 - S3 - S4 - S1 - S3 - ES
D. SS - S1 - S4 - S2 - S1 - S3 – ES
Q. 183: Why is independent testing important?
A. Independent testing is usually cheaper than testing your own work.
B. Independent testing is more effective at finding defects.
C. Independent testers should determine the processes and methodologies used.
D. Independent testers are dispassionate about whether the project succeeds or fails.
Q. 184: Which of the following is among the typical tasks of a test leader?
A. Develop system requirements, design specifications and usage models.
B. Handle all test automation duties.
C. Keep tests and test coverage hidden from programmers.
D. Gather and report test progress metrics.
Q. 185: According to the ISTQB Glossary, what do we mean when we call someone a test manager?
A. A test manager manages a collection of test leaders.
B. A test manager is the leader of a test team or teams.
C. A test manager gets paid more than a test leader.
D. A test manager reports to a test leader.
Q. 186: What is the primary difference between the test plan, the test design specification, and the test procedure specification?
A. The test plan describes one or more levels of testing, the test design specification identifies the associated high-level test cases and a test procedure specification describes the actions for executing a test.
B. The test plan is for managers, the test design specification is for programmers and the test procedure specification is for testers who are automating tests.
C. The test plan is the least thorough, the test procedure specification is the most thorough and the test design specification is midway between the two.
D. The test plan is finished in the first third of the project, the test design specification is finished in the middle third of the project and the test procedure specification is finished in the last third of the project.
Q.187: Which of the following factors is an influence on the test effort involved in most projects?
A. Geographical separation of tester and programmers.
B. The departure of the test manager during the project.
C. The quality of the information used to develop the tests.
D. Unexpected long-term illness by a member of the project team.
Q. 188: The ISTQB Foundation Syllabus establishes a fundamental test process where test planning occurs early in the project, while test execution occurs at the end. Which of the following elements of the test plan, while specified during test planning, is assessed during test execution?
A. Test tasks
B. Environmental needs
C. Exit criteria
D. Test team training
Q. 189: Consider the following exit criteria which might be found in a test plan:
I. No known customer-critical defects.
II. All interfaces between components tested.
III. 100% code coverage of all units.
IV. All specified requirements satisfied.
V. System functionality matches legacy system for all business rules.
Which of the following statements is true about whether these exit criteria belong in an acceptance test plan?
A. All statements belong in an acceptance test plan.
B. Only statement I belongs in an acceptance test plan.
C. Only statements I, II, and V belong in an acceptance test plan.
D. Only statements I, IV, and V belong in an acceptance test plan.
Q. 190: According to the ISTQB Glossary, what is a test level?
A. A group of test activities that are organized together.
B. One or more test design specification documents.
C. A test type.
D. An ISTQB certification.
Q.191Which of the following metrics would be most useful to monitor during test execution?
A. Percentage of test cases written.
B. Number of test environments remainin to be configured.
C. Number of defects found and fixed.
D. Percentage of requirements for which a test has been written.
Q. 192: During test execution, the test manager describes the following situation to the project team: '90% of the test cases have been run. 20% of the test cases have identified defects. 127 defects have been found. 112 defects have been fixed and have passed confirmation testing. Of the remaining 15 defects, project management has decided that they do not need to be fixed prior to release.' Which of the following is the most reasonable interpretation of this test status report?
A. The remaining 15 defects should be confirmation tested prior to release.
B. The remaining 10% of test cases should be run prior to release.
C. The system is now ready for release with no further testing or development effort.
D. The programmers should focus their attention on fixing the remaining known defects prior to release.
Q. 193: In a test summary report, the project's test leader makes the following statement, The payment processing subsystem fails to accept payments from American Express cardholders, which is considered a must-work feature for this release.' This statement is likely to be found in which of the following sections?
A. Evaluation
B. Summary of activities
C. Variances
D. Incident description
Q. 194: During an early period of test execution, a defect is located, resolved and confirmed as resolved by re-testing, but is seen again later during subsequent test execution. Which of the following is a testing-related aspect of configuration management that is most likely to have broken down?
A. Traceability
B. Confirmation testing
C. Configuration control
D. Test documentation management
Q. 195: You are working as a tester on a project to develop a point-of-sales system for grocery stores and other similar retail outlets. Which of the following is a product risk for such a project?
A. The arrival of a more-reliable competing product on the market.
B. Delivery of an incomplete test release to the first cycle of system test.
C. An excessively high number of defect fixes fail during re-testing.
D. Failure to accept allowed credit cards.
Q. 196: A product risk analysis meeting is held during the project planning period. Which of the following determines the level of risk?
A. Difficulty of fixing related problems in code
B. The harm that might result to the user
C. The price for which the software is sold
D. The technical staff in the meeting
Q. 197: You are writing a test plan using the IEEE 829 template and are currently completing the Risks and Contingencies section. Which of the following is most likely to be listed as a project risk?
A. Unexpected illness of a key team member
B. Excessively slow transaction-processing time
C. Data corruption under network congestion
D. Failure to handle a key use case
Q. 198: You and the project stakeholders develop a list of product risks and project risks during the planning stage of a project. What else should you do with those lists of risks during test planning?
A. Determine the extent of testing required for the product risks and the mitigation and contingency actions required for the project risks.
B. Obtain the resources needed to completely cover each product risk with tests and transfer responsibility for the project risks to the project manager.
C. Execute sufficient tests for the product risks, based on the likelihood and impact of each product risk and execute mitigation actions for all project risks.
D. No further risk management action is required at the test planning stage.
Q. 199: According to the ISTQB Glossary, a product risk is related to which of the following?
A. Control of the test project
B. The test object
C. A single test item
D. A potential negative outcome
Q. 200: In an incident report, the tester makes the following statement, 'At this point, I expect to receive an error message explaining the rejection of this invalid input and asking me to enter a valid input. Instead the system accepts the input, displays an hourglass for between one and five seconds and finally terminates abnormally, giving the message, "Unexpected data type: 15. Click to continue." '
This statement is likely to be found in which of the following sections of an IEEE 829 standard incident report?
A. Summary
B. Impact
C. Item pass/fail criteria
D. Incident description
Q.201 According to the ISTQB Glossary, what do we call a document that describes any event that occurred during testing which requires further investigation?
A. A bug report
B. A defect report
C. An incident report
D. A test summary report
Q.202: A product risk analysis is performed during the planning stage of the test process. During the execution stage of the test process, the test manager directs the testers to classify each defect report by the known product risk it relates to (or to 'other'). Once a week, the test manager runs a report that shows the percentage of defects related to each known product risk and to unknown risks.
What is one possible use of such a report?
A. To identify new risks to system quality.
B. To locate defect clusters in product subsystems.
C. To check risk coverage by tests.
D. To measure exploratory testing.
Q. 203: Which tools help to support static testing?
A. Static analysis tools and test execution tools.
B. Review process support tools, static analysis tools and coverage measurement tools.
C. Dynamic analysis tools and modeling tools.
D. Review process support tools, static analysis tools and modeling tools.
Q. 204: Which test activities are supported by test harness or unit test framework tools?
A. Test management and control.
B. Test specification and design.
C. Test execution and logging.
D. Performance and monitoring.
Q. 205: What are the potential benefits from using tools in general to support testing?
A. Greater quality of code, reduction in the number of testers needed, better objectives for testing.
B. Greater repeatability of tests, reduction in repetitive work, objective assessment.
C. Greater responsiveness of users, reduction of tests run, objectives not necessary.
D. Greater quality of code, reduction in paperwork, fewer objections to the tests.
Q. 206: What is a potential risk in using tools to support testing?
A. Unrealistic expectations, expecting the tool to do too much.
B. Insufficient reliance on the tool, i.e. still doing manual testing when a test execution tool has been purchased.
C. The tool may find defects that aren't there.
D. The tool will repeat exactly the same thing it did the previous time.
Q. 207: Which of the following are advanced scripting techniques for test execution tools?
A. Data-driven and keyword-driven
B. Data-driven and capture-driven
C. Capture-driven and keyhole-driven
D. Playback-driven and keyword-driven
Q. 208: Which of the following would NOT be done as part of selecting a tool for an organization?
A. Assess organizational maturity, strengths and weaknesses.
B. Roll out the tool to as many users as possible within the organization.
C. Evaluate the tool features against clear requirements and objective criteria.
D. Identify internal requirements for coaching and mentoring in the use of the tool.
Q. 209: Which of the following is a goal for a proof-of-concept or pilot phase for tool evaluation?
A. Decide which tool to acquire.
B. Decide on the main objectives and requirements for this type of tool.
C. Evaluate the tool vendor including training, support and commercial aspects.
D. Decide on standard ways of using, managing, storing and maintaining the tool and the test assets.
Q. 210: What is a key characteristic of specification-based testing techniques?
A. Tests are derived from information about how the software is constructed.
B. Tests are derived from models (formal or informal) that specify the problem to be solved by the software or its components.
C. Tests are derived based on the skills and experience of the tester.
D. Tests are derived from the extent of the coverage of structural elements of the system or components.
Q.211An exhaustive test suite would include:
A. All combinations of input values and preconditions.
B. All combinations of input values and output values.
C. All pairs of input value and preconditions.
D. All states and state transitions.
Q. 212: Which statement about testing is true?
A. Testing is started as early as possible in the life cycle.
B. Testing is started after the code is written so that we have a system with which to work.
C. Testing is most economically done at the end of the life cycle.
D. Testing can only be done by an independent test team.
Q. 213: For a test procedure that is checking modifications of customers on a database, which two steps below would be the lowest priority if we didn't have time to execute all of the steps?
1. Open database and confirm existing customer
2. Change customer's marital status from single to married
3. Change customer's street name from Parks Road to Park Road
4. Change customer's credit limit from 500 to 750
5. Replace customer's first name with exactly the same first name
6. Close the customer record and close the database
A. Tests 1 and 4
B. Tests 2 and 3
C. Tests 5 and 6
D. Tests 3 and 5
Q. 214: Consider the following list of either product or project risks:
I. An incorrect calculation of fees might shortchange the organization.
II. A vendor might fail to deliver a system component on time.
III. A defect might allow hackers to gain administrative privileges.
IV. A skills gap might occur in a new technology used in the system.
V. A defect-prioritization process might overload the development team. Which of the following statements is true?
A. I is primarily a product risk and II, III, IV and V are primarily project risks.
B. II and V are primarily product risks and I, III and V are primarily project risks.
C. I and III are primarily product risks, while II, IV and V are primarily project risks.
D. III and V are primarily product risks, while I, II and IV are primarily project risks.
Q. 215: Consider the following statements about regression tests:
I. They may usefully be automated if they are well designed.
II. They are the same as confirmation tests (re-tests).
III. They are a way to reduce the risk of a change having an adverse affect elsewhere in the system.
IV. They are only effective if automated. Which pair of statements is true?
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. II and IV
Q. 216: Which of the following could be used to assess the coverage achieved for structure-based (white-box) test techniques?
V. Decision outcomes exercised
W. Partitions exercised
X. Boundaries exercised
Y. Conditions or multiple conditions exercised
Z. Statements exercised
A. V, W or Y
B. W, X or Y
C. V, Y or Z
D. W, X or Z
Q. 217: Review the following portion of an incident report.
1. I place any item in the shopping cart.
2. I place any other (different) item in the shopping cart.
3. I remove the first item from the shopping cart, but leave the second item in the cart.
4. I click the < Checkout > button.
5. I expect the system to display the first checkout screen. Instead, it gives the pop-up error message, 'No items in shopping cart. Click to continue shopping.'
6. I click < Okay >.
7. I expect the system to return to the main window to allow me to continue adding and removing items from the cart. Instead, the browser terminates.
8. The failure described in steps 5 and 7 occurred in each of three attempts to perform steps 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6.
Assume that no other narrative information is included in the report. Which of the following important aspects of a good incident report is missing from this incident report?
A. The steps to reproduce the failure.
B. The summary.
C. The check for intermittence.
D. The use of an objective tone.
Q. 218: Which of the following are benefits and which are risks of using tools to support testing?
1. Over-reliance on the tool
2. Greater consistency and repeatability
3. Objective assessment
4. Unrealistic expectations
5. Underestimating the effort required to maintain the test assets generated by the tool
6. Ease of access to information about tests or testing
7. Repetitive work is reduced
A. Benefits: 3, 4, 6 and 7. Risks: 1, 2 and 5
B. Benefits: 1, 2, 3 and 7, Risks: 4, 5 and 6
C. Benefits: 2, 3, 6 and 7. Risks: 1, 4 and 5
D. Benefits: 2, 3, 5 and 6. Risks: 1, 4 and 7
Q.219: Which of the following encourages objective testing?
A. Unit testing
B. System testing
C. Independent testing
D. Destructive testing
Q. 220: Of the following statements about reviews of specifications, which statement is true?
A. Reviews are not generally cost effective as the meetings are time consuming and require preparation and follow up.
B. There is no need to prepare for or follow up on reviews.
C. Reviews must be controlled by the author.
D. Reviews are a cost effective early static test on the system.
Q.221: Consider the following list of test process activities:
I. Analysis and design
II. Test closure activities
III. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
IV. Planning and control
V. Implementation and execution
Which of the following places these in their logical sequence?
A. I, II, III, IV and V.
B. IV, I, V, III and II.
C. IV, I, V, II and III.
D. I, IV, V, III and II.
Q. 222: Test objectives vary between projects and so must be stated in the test plan. Which one of the following test objectives might conflict with the proper tester mindset?
A. Show that the system works before we ship it.
B. Find as many defects as possible.
C. Reduce the overall level of product risk.
D. Prevent defects through early involvement.
Q. 223: Which test activities are supported by test data preparation tools?
A. Test management and control
B. Test specification and design
C. Test execution and logging
D. Performance and monitoring
Q. 224: Consider the following types of tools:
V. Test management tools
W. Static analysis tools
X. Modeling tools
Y. Dynamic analysis tools
Z. Performance testing tools
Which of the following of these tools is most likely to be used by developers?
A. W, X and Y
B. V, Y and Z
C. V, W and Z
D. X, Y and Z
Q. 225: What is a test condition?
A. An input, expected outcome, pre-condition and post-condition
B. The steps to be taken to get the system to a given point
C. Something that can be tested
D. A specific state of the software, e.g. before a test can be run
Q. 226: Which of the following is the most important difference between the metrics-based approach and the expert-based approach to test estimation?
A. The metrics-based approach is more accurate than the expert-based approach.
B. The metrics-based approach uses calculations from historical data while the expertbased approach relies on team wisdom.
C. The metrics-based approach can be used to verify an estimate created using the expert-based approach, but not vice versa.
D. The expert-based approach takes longer than the metrics-based approach.
Q. 227: If the temperature falls below 18 degrees, the heating is switched on. When the temperature reaches 21 degrees, the heating is switched off. What is the minimum set of test input values to cover all valid equivalence partitions?
A. 15, 19 and 25 degrees
B. 17, 18, 20 and 21 degrees
C. 18, 20 and 22 degrees
D. 16 and 26 degrees
Q. 228: Which of these statements about functional testing is true?
A. Structural testing is more important than functional testing as it addresses the code.
B. Functional testing is useful throughout the life cycle and can be applied by business analysts, testers, developers and users.
C. Functional testing is more powerful than static testing as you actually run the system and see what happens.
D. Inspection is a form of functional testing.
Q. 229: What is the purpose of confirmation testing?
A. To confirm the users' confidence that the system will meet their business needs.
B. To confirm that a defect has been fixed correctly.
C. To confirm that no unexpected changes have been introduced or uncovered as a result of changes made.
D. To confirm that the detailed logic of a component conforms to its specification.
Q. 230: Which success factors are required for good tool support within an organization?
A. Acquiring the best tool and ensuring that all testers use it.
B. Adapting processes to fit with the use of the tool and monitoring tool use and benefits.
C. Setting ambitious objectives for tool benefits and aggressive deadlines for achieving them.
D. Adopting practices from other successful organizations and ensuring that initial ways of using the tool are maintained.
Q.231: Which of the following best describes integration testing?
A. Testing performed to expose faults in the interfaces and in the interaction between integrated components.
B. Testing to verify that a component is ready for integration.
C. Testing to verify that the test environment can be integrated with the product.
D. Integration of automated software test suites with the product.
Q. 232: According to the ISTQB Glossary, debugging:
A. Is part of the fundamental testing process.
B. Includes the repair of the cause of a failure.
C. Involves intentionally adding known defects.
D. Follows the steps of a test procedure.
Q. 233: Which of the following could be a root cause of a defect in financial software in which an incorrect interest rate is calculated?
A. Insufficient funds were available to pay the interest rate calculated.
B. Insufficient calculations of compound interest were included.
C. Insufficient training was given to the developers concerning compound interest alculation rules.
D. Inaccurate calculators were used to calculate the expected results.
Q. 234: Assume postal rates for 'light letters' are:
$0.25 up to 10 grams;
$0.35 up to 50 grams;
$0.45 up to 75 grams;
$0.55 up to 100 grams.
Which test inputs (in grams) would be selected using boundary value analysis?
A. 0, 9,19, 49, 50, 74, 75, 99,100
B. 10, 50, 75,100, 250, 1000
C. 0, 1,10,11, 50, 51, 75, 76,100,101
D. 25, 26, 35, 36, 45, 46, 55, 56
Q. 235: Consider the following decision table for Car rental.
Conditions
Conditions
|
Rule 1
|
Rule 2
|
Rule 3
|
Rule 4
|
Over 23?
|
F
|
T
|
T
|
T
|
Clean driving record?
|
Don't care
|
F
|
T
|
T
|
On business?
|
Don't care
|
Don't care
|
F
|
T
|
Actions
|
|
|
|
|
Supply rental car?
|
F
|
F
|
T
|
T
|
Premium charge
|
F
|
F
|
F
|
T
|
Given this decision table, what is the expected result for the following test cases?
TC1: A 26-year-old on business but with violations or accidents on his driving record
TC2: A 62-year-old tourist with a clean driving record
A. TC1: Don't supply car; TC2: Supply car with premium charge.
B. TC1: Supply car with premium charge; TC2: Supply car with no premium charge.
C. TC1: Don't supply car; TC2: Supply car with no premium charge.
D. TC1: Supply car with premium charge; TC2: Don't supply car.
Q. 236: What is exploratory testing?
A. The process of anticipating or guessing where defects might occur.
B. A systematic approach to identifying specific equivalent classes of input.
C. The testing carried out by a chartered engineer.
D. Concurrent test design, test execution, test logging and learning.
Q. 237: What does it mean if a set of tests has achieved 90% statement coverage?
A. 9 out of 10 decision outcomes have been exercised by this set of tests.
B. 9 out of 10 statements have been exercised by this set of tests.
C. 9 out of 10 tests have been run on this set of software.
D. 9 out of 10 requirements statements about the software are correct.
Q. 238: A test plan is written specifically to describe a level of testing where the primary goal is establishing confidence in the system. Which of the following is a likely name for this document?
A. Master test plan
B. System test plan
C. Acceptance test plan
D. Project plan
Q. 239: What is the best description of static analysis?
A. The analysis of batch programs
B. The reviewing of test plans
C. The analysis of program code or other software artifacts
D. The use of black-box testing
Q. 240: System test execution on a project is planned for eight weeks. After a week of testing, a tester suggests that the test objective stated in the test plan of 'finding as many defects as possible during system test' might be more closely met by redirecting the test effort according to which test principle?
A. Impossibility of exhaustive testing.
B. Importance of early testing.
C. The absence of errors fallacy.
D. Defect clustering.
Q.241 Consider the following activities that might relate to configuration management:
I. Identify and document the characteristics of a test item
II. Control changes to the characteristics of a test item
III. Check a test item for defects introduced by a change
IV. Record and report the status of changes to test items
V. Confirm that changes to a test item fixed a defect
Which of the following statements is true?
A. Only I is a configuration management task.
B. All are configuration management tasks.
C. I, II and III are configuration management tasks.
D. I, II and IV are configuration management tasks.
Q. 242: A test plan included the following clauses among the exit criteria:
# System test shall continue until all significant product risks have been covered to the extent specified in the product risk analysis document.
# System test shall continue until no must-fix defects remain against any significant product risks specified in the product risk analysis document.
During test execution, the test team detects 430 must-fix defects prior to release and all must-fix defects are resolved. After release, the customers find 212 new defects, none of which were detected during testing. This means that only 67% of the important defects were found prior to release, a percentage which is well below average in your industry. You are asked to find the root cause for the high number of field failures. Consider the following list of explanations:
I. Not all the tests planned for the significant product risks were executed.
II. The organization has unrealistic expectations of the percentage of defects that testing can find.
III. A version-control issue has resulted in the release of a version of the software that was used during early testing.
IV. The product risk analysis failed to identify all the important risks from a customer point of view.
V. The product risk analysis was not updated during the project as new information became available.
Which of the following statements indicate which explanations are possible root causes?
A. II, III and IV are possible explanations, but I and V are not possible.
B. All five are possible explanations.
C. I, IV and V are possible explanations, but II and III are not possible.
D. III, IV and V are possible explanations, but I and II are not possible.
Q. 243: What is the most important factor for successful performance of reviews?
A. A separate scribe during the logging meeting
B. Trained participants and review leaders
C. The availability of tools to support the review process
D. A reviewed test plan
Q. 244: Consider the following statements about maintenance testing:
I. It requires both re-test and regression test and may require additional new tests.
II. It is testing to show how easy it will be to maintain the system.
III. It is difficult to scope and therefore needs careful risk and impact analysis.
IV. It need not be done for emergency bug fixes.
Which of the statements are true?
A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV
Q. 245: The purpose of entry criteria is to prevent a task from being considered coMpleted when there are still outstanding parts of the task which have not been finished.
A. True
B. False
Q. 246: Which two specification-based testing techniques are most closely related to each other?
A. Decision tables and state transition testing
B. Equivalence partitioning and state transition testing
C. Decision tables and boundary value analysis
D. Equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis
Q. 247: Which of the following is an advantage of independent testing?
A. Independent testers don't have to spend time communicating with the project team.
B. Programmers can stop worrying about the quality of their work and focus on producing more code.
C. The others on a project can pressure the independent testers to accelerate testing at the end of the schedule.
D. Independent testers sometimes question the assumptions behind requirements, designs and implementations.
Q. 248: DDP formula that would apply for calculating DDP for the last level of testing prior to release to the field is
A. DDP = {Defects (Testers) – Defects (Field)} / Defects (Testers)
B. DDP = {Defects (Testers) + Defects (Field)} / Defects (Testers)
C. DDP = Defects (Testers) / {Defects (Field) + Defects (Testers)}
D. DDP = Defects (Testers) / {Defects (Field) - Defects (Testers)}
Q. 249: An incident report contains a description of the misbehavior that was observed and classification of that misbehavior.
A. True
B. False
Q. 250: Popular specification-based techniques are:
A. Equivalence partitioning
B. Boundary value analysis
C. Decision tables
D. All three described above
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